Schinzel conjectured the generalisation that, for any fixed $a$, if $n$ is sufficiently large in terms of $a$ then there exist distinct integers $1\leq x<y<z$ such that \[\frac{a}{n} = \frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z}.\]
Does this process always terminate if $x$ has odd denominator and $A$ is the set of odd numbers? More generally, for which pairs $x$ and $A$ does this process terminate?
Graham [Gr64b] has shown that $\frac{m}{n}$ is the sum of distinct unit fractions with denominators $\equiv a\pmod{d}$ if and only if \[\left(\frac{n}{(n,(a,d))},\frac{d}{(a,d)}\right)=1.\] Does the greedy algorithm always terminate in such cases?
Graham [Gr64c] has also shown that $x$ is the sum of distinct unit fractions with square denominators if and only if $x\in [0,\pi^2/6-1)\cup [1,\pi^2/6)$. Does the greedy algorithm for this always terminate? Erdős and Graham believe not - indeed, perhaps it fails to terminate almost always.
This conjecture would follow for all but at most finitely many exceptions if it were known that, for all large $N$, there exists a prime $p\in [N,2N]$ such that $\frac{p+1}{2}$ is also prime.
An elementary inductive argument shows that $n_k\leq ku_k$ where $u_1=1$ and $u_{i+1}=u_i(u_i+1)$, and hence \[v(k) \leq kc_0^{2^k},\] where \[c_0=\lim_n u_n^{1/2^n}=1.26408\cdots\] is the 'Vardi constant'.
Hunter and Sawhney have observed that Theorem 3 of Bloom [Bl23] (coupled with the trivial greedy approach) implies that $k(N)=(1-o(1))\log N$.
The possible alternative question, that if $A\subseteq \mathbb{N}$ is a set of positive lower density then must there exist $a,b,c\in A$ such that \[\frac{1}{a}=\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c},\] has a negative answer, taking for example $A$ to be the union of $[5^k,(1+\epsilon)5^k]$ for large $k$ and sufficiently small $\epsilon>0$. This was observed by Hunter and Sawhney.
Related to [18].
This is not true in general, as shown by Sándor [Sa97], who observed that the proper divisors of $120$ form a counterexample. More generally, Sándor shows that for any $n\geq 2$ there exists a finite set $A\subseteq \mathbb{N}\backslash\{1\}$ with $\sum_{k\in A}\frac{1}{k}<n$ and no partition into $n$ parts each of which has $\sum_{k\in A_i}\frac{1}{k}<1$.
The minimal counterexample is $\{2,3,4,5,6,7,10,11,13,14,15\}$, found by Tom Stobart.
See also [321].
See also [320].
What if $a,b\in A$ with $a\neq b$ implies $a+b\nmid 2ab$? Must $\lvert A\rvert=o(N)$?