Proved by Sárkzözy [Sa85] for all sufficiently large $n$, and by Granville and Ramaré [GrRa96] for all $n\geq 5$.
More generally, if $f(n)$ is the largest integer such that, for some prime $p$, we have $p^{f(n)}$ dividing $\binom{2n}{n}$, then $f(n)$ should tend to infinity with $n$. Can one even disprove that $f(n)\gg \log n$?
Are there infinitely many $n$ such that $\binom{2n}{n}$ is coprime to $105$?
Erdős, Graham, Ruzsa, and Straus [EGRS75] have shown that, for any two primes $p$ and $q$, there are infinitely many $n$ such that $\binom{2n}{n}$ is coprime to $pq$.
Is
\[\sum_{\substack{p\nmid \binom{2n}{n}\\ p\leq n}}\frac{1}{p}\]
unbounded as a function of $n$?
If the sum is denoted by $f(n)$ then Erdős, Graham, Ruzsa, and Straus [EGRS75] have shown
\[\lim_{x\to \infty}\frac{1}{x}\sum_{n\leq x}f(n) = \sum_{k=2}^\infty \frac{\log k}{2^k}=\gamma_0\]
and
\[\lim_{x\to \infty}\frac{1}{x}\sum_{n\leq x}f(n)^2 = \gamma_0^2,\]
so that for almost all integers $f(m)=\gamma_0+o(1)$.
Let $r\geq 0$. Does the density of integers $n$ for which $\binom{n}{k}$ is squarefree for at least $r$ values of $1\leq k<n$ exist? Is this density $>0$?
Erdős and Graham state they can prove that, for $k$ fixed and large, the density of $n$ such that $\binom{n}{k}$ is squarefree is $o_k(1)$. They can also prove that there are infinitely many $n$ such that $\binom{n}{k}$ is not squarefree for $1\leq k<n$, and expect that the density of such $n$ is positive.
Let $S(n)$ denote the largest integer such that, for all $1\leq k<n$, the binomial coefficient $\binom{n}{k}$ is divisible by $p^{S(n)}$ for some prime $p$ (depending on $k$). Is it true that
\[\limsup S(n)=\infty?\]
If $s(n)$ denotes the largest integer such that $\binom{n}{k}$ is divisible by $p^{s(n)}$ for some prime $p$ for at least one $1\leq k<n$ then it is easy to see that $s(n)\to \infty$ as $n\to \infty$ (and in fact that $s(n) \asymp \log n$).
If $1<k\leq n$ then $\binom{n}{k}$ is divisible by a prime $p<n/2$ (except $\binom{7}{3}=5\cdot 7$).
A conjecture of Erdős and Selfridge. Proved by Ecklund [Ec69], who made the stronger conjecture that whenever $n>k^2$ the binomial coefficient $\binom{n}{k}$ is divisible by a prime $p<n/k$. They have proved the weaker inequality $p\ll n/k^c$ for some constant $c>0$.
Can $\binom{n}{k}$ be the product of consecutive primes infinitely often? For example
\[\binom{21}{2}=2\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot 7.\]
Erdős and Graham write that 'a proof that this cannot happen infinitely often for $\binom{n}{2}$ seems hopeless; probably this can never happen for $\binom{n}{k}$ if $3\leq k\leq n-3$.'
Is there an absolute constant $c>0$ such that, for all $1\leq k\leq n$, the binomial coefficient $\binom{n}{k}$ always has a divisor in $(cn,n]$?
