PROVED (LEAN)
This has been solved in the affirmative and the proof verified in Lean.
Let $x_1,x_2,\ldots \in (0,1)$ be an infinite sequence. Is it true that\[\limsup_{k\to \infty}\left(\limsup_{n\to \infty}\left\lvert \sum_{j\leq n} e(kx_j)\right\rvert\right)=\infty\]where $e(x)=e^{2\pi ix}$?
Erdős remarks it is 'easy to see' that\[\limsup_{k\to \infty}\left(\sup_n\left\lvert \sum_{j\leq n} e(kx_j)\right\rvert\right)=\infty.\]Erdős
[Er65b] later found a 'very easy' proof that, if\[A_k=\left(\limsup_{n\to \infty}\left\lvert \sum_{j\leq n} e(kx_j)\right\rvert\right),\]then $A_k\gg \log k$ for infinitely many $k$, and asked whether $A_k\gg k$ infinitely often. Clunie
[Cl67] proved that $A_k\gg k^{1/2}$ infinitely often, and that there exist sequences with $A_k\leq k$ for all $k$. Tao has independently found a proof that $A_k\gg k^{1/2}$ infinitely often (see the comment section).
Liu
[Li69] showed that, for any $\epsilon>0$, $A_k\gg k^{1-\epsilon}$ infinitely often, under the additional assumption that there are only a finite number of distinct points. Clunie observed in the Mathscinet review of
[Li69], however, that under this assumption in fact $A_k=\infty$ infinitely often.
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Additional thanks to: Terence Tao
When referring to this problem, please use the original sources of Erdős. If you wish to acknowledge this website, the recommended citation format is:
T. F. Bloom, Erdős Problem #987, https://www.erdosproblems.com/987, accessed 2025-11-16