FALSIFIABLE
Open, but could be disproved with a finite counterexample.
Is it true that for every $1\leq i<j\leq n/2$ there exists some prime $p\geq i$ such that\[p\mid \textrm{gcd}\left(\binom{n}{i}, \binom{n}{j}\right)?\]
A problem of Erdős and Szekeres. A theorem of Sylvester and Schur says that for any $1\leq i\leq n/2$ there exists some prime $p>i$ which divides $\binom{n}{i}$.
Erdős and Szekeres further conjectured that $p\geq i$ can be improved to $p>i$ except in a few special cases. In particular this fails when $i=2$ and $n$ being some particular powers of $2$. They also found some counterexamples when $i=3$, but only one counterexample when $i\geq 4$:\[\textrm{gcd}\left(\binom{28}{5},\binom{28}{14}\right)=2^3\cdot 3^3\cdot 5.\]This is mentioned in problem B31 of Guy's collection
[Gu04].
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This page was last edited 30 September 2025.
When referring to this problem, please use the original sources of Erdős. If you wish to acknowledge this website, the recommended citation format is:
T. F. Bloom, Erdős Problem #699, https://www.erdosproblems.com/699, accessed 2025-12-07