Is it true that, for every $\mathcal{F}$, if there is a bipartite graph in $\mathcal{F}$ then there exists some bipartite $G\in\mathcal{F}$ such that \[\mathrm{ex}(n;G)\ll_{\mathcal{F}}\mathrm{ex}(n;\mathcal{F})?\]
Is it true that, for every $\mathcal{F}$, if there is a bipartite graph in $\mathcal{F}$ then there exists some bipartite $G\in\mathcal{F}$ such that \[\mathrm{ex}(n;G)\ll_{\mathcal{F}}\mathrm{ex}(n;\mathcal{F})?\]
See also [180] and the entry in the graphs problem collection.