If $\delta'(n)$ is the density of integers which have exactly one divisor in $(n,2n)$ then is it true that $\delta'(n)=o(\delta(n))$?
If $\delta'(n)$ is the density of integers which have exactly one divisor in $(n,2n)$ then is it true that $\delta'(n)=o(\delta(n))$?
Among many other results in [Fo08], Ford also proves that the second conjecture is false, and more generally that if $\delta_r(n)$ is the density of integers with exactly $r$ divisors in $(n,2n)$ then $\delta_r(n)\gg_r\delta(n)$.