OPEN

Let $M\geq 1$ and $N$ be sufficiently large in terms of $M$. Is it true that for every maximal Sidon set $A\subset \{1,\ldots,N\}$ there is another Sidon set $B\subset \{1,\ldots,N\}$ of size $M$ such that $(A-A)\cap(B-B)=\{0\}$?

#42: [Er95]

number theory, sidon sets, additive combinatorics