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Let $A\subseteq \mathbb{N}$ be an infinite arithmetic progression and $f:A\to \{-1,1\}$ be a non-constant function. Must there exist a finite $S\subset A$ such that \[\sum_{n\in S}\frac{f(n)}{n}=0?\] What about if $A$ is an arbitrary set of positive density? What if $A$ is the set of squares excluding $1$?
Erdős and Straus [ErSt75] proved this when $A=\mathbb{N}$. Sattler [Sat75] proved this when $A$ is the set of odd numbers. For the squares $1$ must be excluded or the result is trivially false, since \[\sum_{k\geq 2}\frac{1}{k^2}<1.\]