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Is it true that, for all sufficiently large $k$, there exist intervals $I_1,\ldots,I_k$ with $\lvert I_i\rvert \geq 2$ for $1\leq i\leq k$ such that \[1=\sum_{i=1}^k \sum_{n\in I_i}\frac{1}{n}?\]
#289
:
[ErGr80]
number theory
,
unit fractions
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