OPEN

Let $f(n)\to \infty$ as $n\to \infty$. Is it true that
\[\sum_n \frac{1}{(n+1)\cdots (n+f(n))}\]
is irrational?

Erdős and Graham write 'the answer is almost surely in the affirmative if $f(n)$ is assumed to be nondecreasing'. Even the case $f(n)=n$ is unknown, although Hansen [Ha75] has shown that
\[\sum_n \frac{1}{\binom{2n}{n}}=\sum_n \frac{n!}{(n+1)\cdots (n+n)}=\frac{1}{3}+\frac{2\pi}{3^{5/2}}\]
is transcendental.