Logo
All Random Solved Random Open
OPEN
Let $k\geq 1$ and $\sigma_k(n)=\sum_{d\mid n}d^k$. Is \[\sum \frac{\sigma_k(n)}{n!}\] irrational?
This is known now for $1\leq k\leq 4$. The cases $k=1,2$ are reasonably straightforward, as observed by Erdős [Er52]. The case $k=3$ was proved independently by Schlage-Puchta [ScPu06] and Friedlander, Luca, and Stoiciu [FLC07]. The case $k=4$ was proved by Pratt [Pr22].