Let $n\geq 1$ and
\[A=\{a_1<\cdots <a_{\phi(n)}\}=\{ 1\leq m<n : (m,n)=1\}.\]
Is it true that
\[ \sum_{1\leq k<\phi(n)}(a_{k+1}-a_k)^2 \ll \frac{n^2}{\phi(n)}?\]

The answer is yes, as proved by Montgomery and Vaughan [MoVa86], who in fact found the correct order of magnitude with the power $2$ replaced by any $\gamma\geq 1$ (which was also asked by Erdős in [Er73]).